Passage Summary: Shakespeare definitely copied a Greek play, but because he couldn't read Greek, he must have read a version of it translated into Latin.

Conclusion: Shakespeare likely became familiar with Euripides' play through a Latin translation rather than the original Greek.

Reasoning: It is clear Shakespeare modeled his work after Euripides, but since he did not know Greek, he could not have used the original source directly.

Analysis: This is a 'Strengthen-LEAST' question, meaning four of the answers will support the conclusion and one will not. The argument relies on the idea that Latin was the bridge between the Greek original and Shakespeare's English. To strengthen this, we want evidence that Latin translations existed, that Shakespeare could read Latin, or that other sources were unavailable. The correct answer will be the one that either does nothing for the argument or potentially makes the Latin-connection less certain.